SQA DojoISTQB Exam Prep

ISTQB Practice Test 2: 40 Questions with Answers

Paper 2 is the middle paper and the one candidates most often underestimate. It keeps the same chapter mix as the others but asks more of the test analysis and design material, where you have to apply a technique to a scenario rather than recall what it is called.

All 40 questions are on this page with their answers and explanations, so you can work through them at your own pace. This paper is fixed and shares no questions with the other two papers, so a second attempt measures what you have learned rather than what you have memorised.

What is in this paper

By cognitive level: 8 K1 (recall), 31 K2 (understanding) and 1 K3 (application). The real exam is weighted roughly 20% K1, 60% K2 and 20% K3, with a 65% pass mark over 60 minutes.

How to get the most from this paper

Give yourself the full hour on this one. Questions that hand you a table of conditions or a state model take longer than definition questions, and running out of time on the last ten questions is the most common way to fail a paper you actually knew.

Prefer exam conditions?

Sit this paper against a 60-minute clock, one question at a time, with the answers hidden until you submit. Your score is marked against the 65% pass threshold.

Practice Test 2 questions and answers

Each question shows its options first. Open the toggle to see the correct answer and why it is correct.

  1. 1. Why does the syllabus state that testing is context dependent?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Testing is carried out differently depending on factors such as the domain, the risks and the lifecycle in use
    • B.Testing must always be adapted to the tester's personal preference
    • C.Testing can only be performed in the environment where the software will run
    • D.Testing produces different results each time it is run
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Testing is carried out differently depending on factors such as the domain, the risks and the lifecycle in use

    There is no single universal approach. What is appropriate for a safety-critical system differs from what suits a marketing website.

  2. 2. Which testware is produced by the test design activity?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Test cases, test charters and coverage items
    • B.The test completion report
    • C.Test conditions
    • D.Test procedures and automated test scripts
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Test cases, test charters and coverage items

    1.4.3 lists test design work products as (prioritized) test cases, test charters, coverage items, test data requirements and test environment requirements.

  3. 3. Which TWO of the following are typical test objectives?

    Cognitive level K1

    Choose 2.

    • A.Providing information for stakeholders to make decisions
    • B.Approving the project budget
    • C.Building confidence in the quality of the test object
    • D.Fixing the defects that testing finds
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Providing information for stakeholders to make decisions | C. Building confidence in the quality of the test object

    Supplying decision-making information, particularly about release readiness, is a named test objective.

    Building confidence is one of the typical test objectives listed in the syllabus.

  4. 4. Why does the syllabus recommend that information about defects and failures be communicated in a constructive way?

    Cognitive level K1
    • A.Because defects found in reviews are less important than those found in testing
    • B.Because findings can be perceived as criticism of the product and of its author
    • C.Because reviews are used to evaluate the performance of participants
    • D.Because the author has the right to reject any finding they disagree with
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Because findings can be perceived as criticism of the product and of its author

    1.5.1 notes that communicating test results may be perceived as criticism of the product and of its author, so findings should be conveyed constructively to avoid damaging working relationships.

  5. 5. After a defect has been fixed, who is the preferred person to perform the confirmation testing?

    Cognitive level K1
    • A.The developer who fixed the defect
    • B.Any member of the team who has not seen the defect report
    • C.An independent tester from outside the project
    • D.The same person who performed the initial test
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. The same person who performed the initial test

    Section 1.1.2 states that confirmation testing checks whether the fixes resolved the problem, and that preferably it is done by the same person who performed the initial test.

  6. 6. How are test results used differently by testing and by quality assurance?

    Cognitive level K1
    • A.In testing they measure coverage, while in QA they measure defect density
    • B.In testing they are used to fix defects, while in QA they provide feedback on how well the development and test processes are performing
    • C.Both use them identically, to decide whether the product can be released
    • D.In testing they drive process improvement, while in QA they drive defect fixes
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. In testing they are used to fix defects, while in QA they provide feedback on how well the development and test processes are performing

    Section 1.2.2 states exactly this division in the use of test results.

  7. 7. Traceability of test results to risks supports which evaluation?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Evaluating whether every requirement is covered by a test case
    • B.Evaluating whether the test basis contains defects
    • C.Evaluating the level of residual risk in a test object
    • D.Evaluating the skills of the people who executed the tests
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Evaluating the level of residual risk in a test object

    Section 1.4.4 gives this as one of its two worked examples: traceability of test results to risks can be used to evaluate the level of residual risk in a test object.

  8. 8. Why is testing considered largely an intellectual activity rather than a purely technical one?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Because it requires specialized knowledge, analytical skills, critical thinking and systems thinking
    • B.Because test execution cannot be automated in most projects
    • C.Because testing decisions are made by managers rather than by tools
    • D.Because testers work from documentation rather than from the running system
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Because it requires specialized knowledge, analytical skills, critical thinking and systems thinking

    Section 1.1 states that testers use tools, but that testing is largely an intellectual activity requiring testers to have specialized knowledge, use analytical skills, and apply critical thinking and systems thinking.

  9. 9. A team tests whether the system can restore service and recover its data after a power failure. Which quality characteristic is being evaluated?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Functional suitability
    • B.Reliability, including recoverability
    • C.Performance efficiency
    • D.Usability
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Reliability, including recoverability

    Recovery of the system and its data after a failure is the recoverability sub-characteristic of reliability.

  10. 10. Which of the following is NOT one of the good testing practices that apply regardless of the software development lifecycle model?

    Cognitive level K1
    • A.Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as drafts are available
    • B.All testing must be completed before any code is written
    • C.Every development activity has a corresponding test activity
    • D.Each test level has objectives specific to that level
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. All testing must be completed before any code is written

    This is not a good practice and contradicts the lifecycle: test analysis and design begin early, but execution requires a test object.

  11. 11. Which of the following would MOST appropriately serve as the test basis for acceptance testing?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.The internal control flow of each module
    • B.Component interface specifications
    • C.The defect reports raised during system testing
    • D.Business processes, user requirements and regulations or contracts
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Business processes, user requirements and regulations or contracts

    Section 2.2.1 states that acceptance testing focuses on validation and on demonstrating readiness for deployment, meaning the system fulfills the user's business needs. Contractual and regulatory acceptance testing are named among its main forms, which is why contracts and regulations belong here.

  12. 12. Which statement about acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) as a driver for development is TRUE?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Acceptance tests are written by testers after system testing completes
    • B.Acceptance tests are written from the acceptance criteria before implementation, and serve as agreed examples of the required behaviour
    • C.ATDD applies only to non-functional requirements
    • D.ATDD removes the need for component testing
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Acceptance tests are written from the acceptance criteria before implementation, and serve as agreed examples of the required behaviour

    In ATDD the tests are agreed collaboratively before code is written, by team members with different perspectives, and act as examples of how the software should work.

  13. 13. A team adopting DevOps automates a large part of its testing. What does the syllabus say about manual testing in this situation?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Manual testing will still be needed, especially from the user's perspective
    • B.Manual testing is replaced by static analysis in a DevOps pipeline
    • C.Manual testing can be discontinued once the delivery pipeline is stable
    • D.Manual testing should be limited to the component test level
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Manual testing will still be needed, especially from the user's perspective

    Section 2.1.4 closes by stating that although DevOps comes with a high level of automated testing, manual testing, especially from the user's perspective, will still be needed.

  14. 14. In a sequential SDLC model, how are consecutive test levels typically related?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Each level must be completed by a different independent test team
    • B.Each level repeats the tests of the previous level in a wider environment
    • C.Test levels must never overlap in time under any SDLC model
    • D.The exit criteria of one level are often part of the entry criteria for the next level
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. The exit criteria of one level are often part of the entry criteria for the next level

    Section 2.2 states that in sequential SDLC models the test levels are often defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level, and notes that in some iterative models this may not apply.

  15. 15. What is the main objective of functional testing?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Confirming that a previously reported defect has been fixed
    • B.Covering the internal structure of the test object to an acceptable level
    • C.Checking how well the system behaves under a defined workload
    • D.Checking functional completeness, functional correctness and functional appropriateness
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Checking functional completeness, functional correctness and functional appropriateness

    Section 2.2.2 states that functional testing evaluates the functions a component or system should perform, and that its main objective is checking functional completeness, functional correctness and functional appropriateness.

  16. 16. Which TWO of the following determine the scope of maintenance testing?

    Cognitive level K2

    Choose 2.

    • A.The age of the technology the system is built on
    • B.The size of the change
    • C.The degree of risk of the change
    • D.The number of testers available for the release
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. The size of the change | C. The degree of risk of the change

    The size of the change is one of the three factors listed in section 2.3 as determining the scope of maintenance testing.

    Section 2.3 states that the scope of maintenance testing typically depends on the degree of risk of the change, the size of the existing system, and the size of the change.

  17. 17. During which review activity are anomalies discussed and given a status?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Initiation
    • B.Communication and analysis
    • C.Fixing and reporting
    • D.Planning
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Communication and analysis

    Anomalies logged during individual review are discussed here, given a status, and assigned ownership.

  18. 18. Which review activity defines the scope, the criteria and the effort required?

    Cognitive level K1
    • A.Review initiation
    • B.Fixing and reporting
    • C.Individual review
    • D.Review planning
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Review planning

    Planning defines the scope of the review: the purpose, the work product, the quality characteristics to evaluate, areas to focus on, exit criteria, supporting information, effort and timeframes.

  19. 19. Why can static testing reduce the total cost of development more than dynamic testing alone?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Because defects are found in work products before they propagate into code and later work products
    • B.Because static testing requires fewer people than dynamic testing
    • C.Because it removes the need for a test environment entirely
    • D.Because static testing finds failures faster than dynamic testing
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Because defects are found in work products before they propagate into code and later work products

    A defect corrected in a requirement is far cheaper than the same defect once it has been designed, coded and tested.

  20. 20. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between reviews and static analysis?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Both are forms of static testing, but reviews are performed by people and static analysis by tools
    • B.Reviews can only be applied to code, and static analysis only to requirements
    • C.Static analysis is a form of dynamic testing
    • D.They are two names for the same activity
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Both are forms of static testing, but reviews are performed by people and static analysis by tools

    Static testing covers both. Reviews can assess whether a work product is sensible and complete; static analysis detects mechanical defects in code at a scale people cannot match.

  21. 21. Which review role decides what is to be reviewed and provides the resources for it?

    Cognitive level K1
    • A.The moderator
    • B.The review leader
    • C.The manager
    • D.The scribe
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. The manager

    The manager decides what is to be reviewed and provides the resources, such as staff and time for the review.

  22. 22. Which TWO of the following can static analysis detect in source code?

    Cognitive level K2

    Choose 2.

    • A.Slow response time under peak load
    • B.Mismatched interface parameters
    • C.A crash caused by an unexpected user action
    • D.Unreachable code and undeclared variables
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Mismatched interface parameters | D. Unreachable code and undeclared variables

    Static analysis compares call sites against declarations, so parameter mismatches are detectable without executing the code.

    Control and data flow anomalies such as unreachable code and undeclared variables are found by examining the source rather than running it.

  23. 23. A discount field accepts integer percentages from 5 to 40 inclusive. Using two-value boundary value analysis, how many boundary values must be tested in total?

    Cognitive level K3
    • A.Two
    • B.Four
    • C.Six
    • D.Thirty-six
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Four

    Two-value BVA tests each boundary and its closest neighbour in the adjacent partition: 4 and 5 at the lower boundary, 40 and 41 at the upper. That is four values.

  24. 24. A tester is given a running system, no specification and two hours. Which technique is MOST appropriate?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Decision table testing
    • B.Boundary value analysis
    • C.Branch testing
    • D.Exploratory testing
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Exploratory testing

    With no specification and a fixed time box, concurrent learning, design and execution against a charter is the appropriate approach.

  25. 25. Which TWO activities are part of collaboration-based test approaches in CTFL v4.0?

    Cognitive level K2

    Choose 2.

    • A.Statement testing
    • B.Acceptance test-driven development
    • C.Checklist-based testing
    • D.Collaborative user story writing
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Acceptance test-driven development | D. Collaborative user story writing

    ATDD derives tests from acceptance criteria before implementation, so ambiguities in those criteria surface before code is written.

    Business, development and testing perspectives contribute to the story so ambiguity surfaces before code is written.

  26. 26. In a decision table, under what circumstance can two columns be merged into one rule?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.When a condition does not affect the outcome for those combinations, so it can be marked as irrelevant
    • B.Whenever a condition is false in both columns
    • C.When the table has more than eight rules
    • D.When two rules produce different actions
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. When a condition does not affect the outcome for those combinations, so it can be marked as irrelevant

    Columns are merged where a condition has no bearing on the resulting action, which reduces the table without losing any distinct behaviour.

  27. 27. What is a coverage item?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Any test case in the test suite
    • B.A requirement in the test basis
    • C.An attribute or combination of attributes derived from a technique, which a test case must exercise to contribute to coverage
    • D.A defect found during execution
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. An attribute or combination of attributes derived from a technique, which a test case must exercise to contribute to coverage

    An attribute or combination of attributes derived from one or more test conditions by applying a test technique, used to measure the thoroughness of test execution. Each technique defines its own coverage items: partitions, boundary values, decision table rules, statements, branches or transitions.

  28. 28. In session-based testing, what guides the tester during the time-boxed session?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.A test charter containing test objectives
    • B.A fully specified set of test cases written in advance
    • C.The defect reports from the previous release
    • D.A decision table derived from the specification
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. A test charter containing test objectives

    In a session-based approach the tester works within a defined time box, guided by a test charter that states the objectives for the session.

  29. 29. When is exploratory testing MOST useful?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.When statement coverage must be demonstrated to a regulator
    • B.When there are few or inadequate specifications, or significant time pressure
    • C.When the same tests must be repeated identically each release
    • D.When a complete and stable specification is available
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. When there are few or inadequate specifications, or significant time pressure

    Exploratory testing suits situations where there is little to derive scripted tests from, or too little time to write them.

  30. 30. Why may checklist entries become less effective over time?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Checklists expire after a fixed period defined by the syllabus
    • B.Automated tools overwrite checklist entries
    • C.The developers learn to avoid making the same errors, so those entries stop finding defects
    • D.Checklist items become harder to read as they are edited
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. The developers learn to avoid making the same errors, so those entries stop finding defects

    The syllabus states that entries become less effective because developers learn to avoid making the same errors. New entries are added for newly found high severity defects, so checklists should be regularly updated based on defect analysis.

  31. 31. What is the purpose of entry criteria?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Define test completion
    • B.Specify test start conditions
    • C.Measure coverage
    • D.Count defects
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Specify test start conditions

    Entry criteria define the conditions that must hold before testing starts; exit criteria define when it can stop.

  32. 32. When to stop testing?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.New defects still found
    • B.Time runs out
    • C.Developers request it
    • D.Planned exit criteria have been met
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Planned exit criteria have been met

    Meeting the planned exit criteria is what determines completion; running out of time is not an exit criterion.

  33. 33. Which is a test control activity?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Re-prioritizing tests when risks change
    • B.Writing test cases
    • C.Gathering requirements
    • D.Fixing defects
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Re-prioritizing tests when risks change

    Monitoring gathers information about progress; control acts on it. Re-prioritizing tests, adjusting the schedule or re-evaluating entry and exit criteria are control directives.

  34. 34. Which is a test monitoring metric?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Number of developers
    • B.Project budget
    • C.Lines of code written
    • D.Number of test cases run
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Number of test cases run

    The number of test cases run is a direct progress measure gathered during test monitoring.

  35. 35. Which TWO of the following are options the syllabus lists for communicating the status of testing?

    Cognitive level K2

    Choose 2.

    • A.Publishing the defect database credentials to all stakeholders
    • B.Requiring every stakeholder to attend test execution
    • C.Verbal communication with team members and other stakeholders
    • D.Dashboards, such as CI/CD dashboards, task boards and burn-down charts
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Verbal communication with team members and other stakeholders | D. Dashboards, such as CI/CD dashboards, task boards and burn-down charts

    Verbal communication is the first option the syllabus lists.

    Dashboards are one of the listed options for communicating test status.

  36. 36. Which technique is suitable for risk identification?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Running the regression suite
    • B.Brainstorming workshops with stakeholders
    • C.Measuring statement coverage of the existing suite
    • D.Counting the defects reported last release
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Brainstorming workshops with stakeholders

    The syllabus names brainstorming, workshops, interviews and cause-effect diagrams as risk identification techniques.

  37. 37. Which factor determines what information a test status communication should contain?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.The number of test cases executed that day
    • B.The interests of the stakeholder receiving it
    • C.The test management tool in use
    • D.The seniority of the person preparing it
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. The interests of the stakeholder receiving it

    Different stakeholders are interested in different information, so status communication should be tailored to its audience.

  38. 38. Which of the following is typical content of a test plan?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.The defect reports raised during execution
    • B.Context of testing, such as test scope, test objectives and test basis
    • C.The test completion report
    • D.The source code of the system under test
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Context of testing, such as test scope, test objectives and test basis

    The typical content of a test plan includes the context of testing, assumptions and constraints, stakeholders, communication, the risk register, the test approach and budget and schedule.

  39. 39. What does a defect management workflow typically comprise?

    Cognitive level K2
    • A.Measuring statement and branch coverage
    • B.Writing the test plan and obtaining sign-off
    • C.Estimating the effort required for the next release
    • D.Logging reported anomalies, analysing and classifying them, deciding a response, and closing the report
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Logging reported anomalies, analysing and classifying them, deciding a response, and closing the report

    This is the typical workflow, and it must be followed by all involved stakeholders.

  40. 40. A team automated its regression suite two years ago. The suite now fails constantly because the application UI changed and nobody updated the scripts. Which risk of test automation does this illustrate?

    Cognitive level K1
    • A.Over-reliance on the tool as a substitute for test design
    • B.The tool licence cost exceeded the budget
    • C.The vendor withdrew support for the tool
    • D.Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets

    Automated tests are themselves work products. When the system changes and the scripts are not maintained, the suite decays and its results stop being trustworthy.

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